Dragaera

OT: Subjectivity vs. Objectivity (was: bois...)

Thu Aug 15 14:00:32 PDT 2002

At 08:57 PM 8/15/2002 +0100, Mike Scott wrote:
>Steven Brust <skzb at dreamcafe.com> writes:
>
> > Why?  That is, what does "it is to be hoped" mean?  It is to be hoped
> > by *whom*?  By persons unknown?  Why say that?  By you?  Then say, "I
> > hope."  By me?  Then say, "You should hope."  By all right-thinking
> > people?  Then say that.  Why this insistence on vagueness?
>
>Vagueness is one of the uses of language, which is full of
>constructions that allow one to be precise about the bits you *want*
>to be precise about, and imprecise where it doesn't matter. It's also
>quite useful to be able to express the concept using three syllables
>rather than the twelve required for "it is to be hoped by all
>right-thinking people".

No insult intended, but, nonsense.  It is *easy* to be vague.  We have no 
trouble being vague.  "Thing."  "Stuff."  "Kind of."  "Tends 
toward."  "Sort of."  The challenge lies in precision.  We do not have to 
make changes in English because the language is crying out for ways in 
which we can be less precise.  The argument that one requires dull tools as 
well as sharp ones in the kitchen is not sufficient explanation for why you 
took the edge off my chef's knife.

The reason you don't say, "All right-thinking people should hope" is 
because you don't really mean that.  Well, do you?  Uh, what exactly *do* 
you mean when you say, "Hopefully Dan will not try to drive after all the 
drinking he's done"? Generally, you mean, "I hope."  Which is, by the way, 
shorter than "hopefully."

Again, to emphasize, my point is simply this--because a change has occurred 
in English, and is now accepted, does not make the change good and useful.