Concerning Great Weapons & Baritt (spoilers for POTD)

Mon Mar 10 10:21:21 PST 2003

I, Jag, and John Klein wrote:

> @> > Vlad is able to heal himself with trivial effort using LT (wonder how long
> @> > he'll be nine-fingered [by the way, is this a LotR reference? - if so note
> @> > that the ring conferred long life]) - something Aliera (a noted medic) and
> @> > Sethra (and Verra for that matter) couldn't do.  I would guess he can fix
> @> > up his telomeres or whatever is involved in aging with a little effort.
> @>
> @> I'm AFB and its been a while since I read _I_, but wasn't the ailment in
> @> Vlad's arm caused by magic?  I look at it as the making of Godslayer is
> @> similar to the moment earlier in _I_ when he broke the glamour on him..
> @> that he was mentally linked with Spellbreaker and thus able to use its
> @> abilities on himself.  In case that wasn't clear, I think the only
> @> reason Vlad was able to cure his arm is because it was caused by magic
> @> and Spellbreaker/Godslayer tends to disrupt magic.
> I dunno if that'd hold up, unless the magic were still present there
> holding the wounds open. It seems like once the damage is done, the magic
> would be over with. Although maybe I'm being mistaken in trying to apply
> physical rules to magic.

One of the annoying things about magic, it often just makes no sense.
I agree with you though - the first guess should be what's done is done.
Anyway, Vlad's arm ailment was caused by a device similar to one used
by the Jenoine pre-Empire.  I got the (unsupported) impression
that this was physical tech - I have a vague memory/hallucination
that Vlad asks if it was magic but told no at the end of _I_.

> [0] Tangent: what exactly is Spellbreaker doing when it breaks
> spells? Magic does seem to obey the laws of conservation[2], so what's
> happening to the power that Spellbreaker absorbs?

In _Dragon_ we're told that 'It interrupts the flow of ...'  when Vlad or
Morrolan break in.