I, Jag, and John Klein wrote: > @> > Vlad is able to heal himself with trivial effort using LT (wonder how long > @> > he'll be nine-fingered [by the way, is this a LotR reference? - if so note > @> > that the ring conferred long life]) - something Aliera (a noted medic) and > @> > Sethra (and Verra for that matter) couldn't do. I would guess he can fix > @> > up his telomeres or whatever is involved in aging with a little effort. > @> > @> I'm AFB and its been a while since I read _I_, but wasn't the ailment in > @> Vlad's arm caused by magic? I look at it as the making of Godslayer is > @> similar to the moment earlier in _I_ when he broke the glamour on him.. > @> that he was mentally linked with Spellbreaker and thus able to use its > @> abilities on himself. In case that wasn't clear, I think the only > @> reason Vlad was able to cure his arm is because it was caused by magic > @> and Spellbreaker/Godslayer tends to disrupt magic. > > I dunno if that'd hold up, unless the magic were still present there > holding the wounds open. It seems like once the damage is done, the magic > would be over with. Although maybe I'm being mistaken in trying to apply > physical rules to magic. One of the annoying things about magic, it often just makes no sense. I agree with you though - the first guess should be what's done is done. Anyway, Vlad's arm ailment was caused by a device similar to one used by the Jenoine pre-Empire. I got the (unsupported) impression that this was physical tech - I have a vague memory/hallucination that Vlad asks if it was magic but told no at the end of _I_. >  Tangent: what exactly is Spellbreaker doing when it breaks > spells? Magic does seem to obey the laws of conservation, so what's > happening to the power that Spellbreaker absorbs? In _Dragon_ we're told that 'It interrupts the flow of ...' when Vlad or Morrolan break in.