On topic

Ruhlen, Rachel Louise (UMC-Student) RuhlenR at missouri.edu
Sun Apr 27 18:21:00 PDT 2003

> -----Original Message-----
> From: BLACKSTOCK, ROB [mailto:rblackstock at ersgroup.com] 
> Sent: Friday, April 25, 2003 12:01 PM
> To: dragaera at dragaera.info
> Subject: On topic
> Has there ever been an explanation for the change in the 
> language style between the anti-interregnum and the Taltos 
> era?  Or, did the language style not change, but had simply 
> been "enhanced" by Parfii in his romances?

I don't know about an explanation, but it is indicated in some part of
the novel (I think in the foreward) that the language style had changed,
but Paarfi didn't use the actual old language style; he used a style
>from a play that had been popular to give it an old-fashioned flavor.

Speaking of which, a couple months ago (only that long? It seems ages
now) I was in a used bookstore and picked up a copy of Zelazny's _Lord
of Light_ which had been strongly recommended after I mentioned that I
couldn't get into _Chronicles of Amber_. I didn't get very into _Lord of
Light_ either, although it's definitely easier to read than Amber, but I
was extremely amused to hear the voices of Tortaalik and Wellborn coming
out of the mouths of gods.


PS It seems ages ago because, not that I'm boasting or anything, but I
got a job offer for a post-doctoral position, wrote my dissertation,
turned it in on time, defended it, and PASSED, not to mention painted my
house inside & out, listed it 4 days before my dissertation seminar on
Friday, found a buyer and TODAY set a closing day. Needless to say I
didn't do all this alone (but credit where credit is due).
Congratulations & sympathies will both be accepted graciously.